Echelons Above Brigade Airspace Course (EABAC) Practice Exam

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• Which term is a restricted air route established to prevent friendly aircraft from being fired upon by friendly forces?
• What is the primary purpose of air interdiction missions?
• At which level of warfare does the U.S. government formulate policy goals and synchronize action across government and partners to align military efforts with national interests and long-term goals?
• Which directive defines the tactical objective and tactical task for air missions?
• Which paragraph provides guidance on how to integrate airspace users in accordance with the commander’s intent, priorities, concept of operations, and risk guidance?
• Which term is defined as a means of regulating force or warfighting functions, and are boundaries, special areas, or other unique markings related to an operational environment's geometry and necessary for planning and managing operations?
• What is the procedural method to separate fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft by determining an altitude below which fixed-wing aircraft normally will not fly?
• Which term describes an airspace coordinating measure that uses altitude to separate users as they transition between different airspace control elements?
• Which term refers to long-range air actions and interdiction tasks?
• Unified Action is defined as what?
• Which form is used for immediate air support requests via the internet protocol route network or JARN, and is employed at Battalion level and higher?
• Provides dedicated protection sorties by air-to-air capable fighters in support of other offensive air and air support operations over enemy territory or in a defensive counter air role to protect aircraft, such as high value airborne assets.
• Which term describes the collection of all units and installations assigned to a combatant command from a single service, including support forces?
• Which term describes the delegation of execution authority to subordinate commanders to perform their assigned mission and tasks?
• The five elements of the planning format used for plans and orders include which of the following?
• Which element is co-located with the Army's division fire support element and airspace element and may be configured as a JAGIC?
• What term describes an air defense measure established around an air base and limited to the engagement envelope of short-range air defense weapons?
• Which construct is a three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires?
• Which term is used by land forces for control and coordination of military operations?
• Which command is normally composed of forces from a single MILDEP that has a broad continuing mission, and there are currently no specified CCMDs designated?
• Which term denotes the line that delineates surface areas for coordination and deconfliction between adjacent units, formations, or areas?
• Which maneuver control measure is a line that delineates surface areas for coordination and deconfliction between adjacent units?
• What are the three elements of the Joint Fires Support System?
• Which term refers to a general term for top-level commands such as JFCs that can be a Combatant Commander, Subordinate Unified Commander, or Joint Task Force Commander?
• Which is the sixth stage of the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• Safeguard friendly forces and include ACAs, restrictive fire lines, no fire areas, and restrictive fire areas. This describes which category of measures?
• What term describes the combined three dimensions: Physical, Information, and Human?
• Which list constitutes the Joint Functions?
• Which statement correctly describes the Joint Operation Area (JOA) jurisdiction?
• Which term broadly describes the exercise of authority and direction of forces to accomplish a mission?
• The Joint Force is a general term applied to which of the following?
• The Execution Paragraph is included in orders/plans of maneuver at which level?
• What is used by the JFACC to produce the ATO?
• Which term denotes a fixed point used for navigation, command and control, and communication?
• Mortars are assigned an area to deliver which type of fires?
• Which term is used to depict the most forward positions of friendly forces including covering and screening forces?
• How many types of products are produced by the six stages of the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• The BCD is digitally parsed into which system of record?
• Which term describes an area with restrictions that require coordination to deliver fires that exceed those restrictions?
• Effective Fires are synchronized with what?
• Who are responsible for airspace management when a division delegates a portion of its area of operations to a subordinate brigade?
• Which term describes airspace holding patterns near friendly forces?
• What term is used to describe the set including the desired point of impact, joint desired point of impact, desired mean point of impact, and nonlethal reference points?
• Which level is primarily concerned with battles and engagements on the ground?
• Which level concerns campaigns and major operations at the theater level?
• Which level translates national strategic objectives into actionable plans for a specific theater?
• Which terminal attack control type requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement and may rely on visual acquisition or real-time targeting information?
• Tactical Control (TACON) limits a commander's authority to the detailed direction and control of movements within which area?
• When requesting on-call air mission, Army unit should clearly identify which two items (found in the AOD) the air mission will support?
• Which term is a point defined and used for navigation, command and control, and communication?
• Which command is defined as consisting of the Service component commander and all Service forces under that command?
• Which capability involves understanding the Operational Environment to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• Which statement best distinguishes Combat Identification from Positive Target ID?
• What concept gives the commander responsibility and authority for planning, directing, and coordinating a military operation?
• Which term is employed by commanders to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces?
• AIRCOR is used to route aviation combat elements between areas such as forward arming and refueling points, holding areas, and battle positions. Which option correctly names AIRCOR?
• What is the integrated collection of daily airspace requirements for an Army echelon called?
• Joint Operations are defined as which of the following?
• Which planning step must include communicating target information to the attack and delivery system?
• JAOP stands for Joint Air Operations Plan.
• Which term governs the engagement of targets of opportunity beyond the coordinating measures?
• Which measures are used by commanders to facilitate rapid engagement of targets while safeguarding friendly forces?
• In the Joint Air Tasking Cycle, which is the third stage?
• Which team works with joint airspace planners to ensure airspace is planned for each air mission?
• Which document is produced by the Joint Air Tasking Cycle to direct air operations?
• Which form is used to schedule munitions flight paths for on-call and scheduled fires?
• In the joint air tasking cycle, nominations for AIRSUPREQs are due before which stage?
• Which term is described as centralized command, defined as delegating C2 authorities to subordinate commanders and establishing decision-making processes and protocols?
• Which term describes air action by aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and that require detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces?
• What is the term for the process of attaining an accurate characterization of detected objects in the operational environment to support an engagement decision?
• Airspace designed for holding orbits and used by rotary and fixed-wing aircraft in close proximity to friendly forces.
• The division's tactical airspace picture is synchronized through links established predominantly with which sensors?
• What term describes an area in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing headquarters?
• An arrangement by the ACA of components and HN airspace control element required to perform airspace control is called?
• Which term refers to the authority over assigned or attached forces that is made available for tasking but limited to the detailed direction and control of movements within the Operational Area necessary to accomplish the mission?
• Who serves as the supported commander's FSCOORD and speaks for the commander on all matters pertaining to fire support?
• The level of warfare where combatant commanders synchronize with unified action partners and employ all elements of national power to fulfill policy aims within the assigned theater is called what?
• Which term uses close air support and air interdiction mission types to support the execution of counterland operations?
• Who is responsible for military-directed airspace control in a Joint Operations Area (JOA)?
• Which term refers to the fundamental principles and standardized terminology guiding the employment of United States military forces in coordinated action toward a common objective?
• Which role is the theater's FSCOORD and coordinates the fires across the theater?
• What is the planning cycle the JFACC uses to produce the Air Tasking Order (ATO)?
• Which command is established to conduct operations when forces from two or more services must operate in the same physical domain or accomplish a distinct aspect of the assigned mission?
• In relation to military plans and orders, what instructions are necessary for coordination and synchronization of the joint operation that apply to two or more elements of the command?
• When requesting air missions, Army units should clearly identify which two items from the AOD that the air mission will support?
• What is the purpose of Joint Doctrine?
• In JAGIC, who commonly serves as the JAGIC chief?
• The principle of unity of command is defined as what?
• What term describes the airspace where engagement is conducted by short-range air defense weapons?
• What is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft?
• Which statement captures the difference between OPCON and TACON?
• Who is responsible for developing the Joint Air Operations Plan (JAOP)?
• The activity comprising related military operations intended to achieve strategic and operational objectives within an Operational Area is what?
• Which term refers to a temporary corridor that presents the minimum known hazards to low-flying aircraft transiting the combat zone?
• Which term describes the ongoing support to maintain operations, including logistics?
• The method used to task and disseminate projected sorties, capabilities, and/or forces to targets and specific missions is called?
• Which stage follows Master Air Attack Plan?
• The commander who provides and coordinates the requested assistance to another commander is the what?
• What are the types of Army Brigade Combat Team (BCT)?
• Which term describes the overarching airspace management construct that can be formal or informal to facilitate efficient airspace use and safeguard friendly forces?
• JAOP stands for which?
• At which level are forces tasked to plan and execute battles and engagements to achieve military objectives, focusing on immediate objectives?
• What does ACA stand for?
• Which level of warfare plans, conducts, and sustains campaigns and operations to achieve operational objectives that support strategic objectives, linking tactical actions to strategic objectives?
• Mission Command emphasizes empowering subordinate decision-making to achieve what primary objective?
• What plan establishes procedures for the airspace control system in the operational area and serves as guidance for airspace control?
• Which form should be used for a munitions flight path created by the fires warfighting function for scheduled and on-call fires?
• Which terminal attack control type requires visually acquiring both the target and the attacking aircraft during the terminal phase?
• Who is the weapons release authority for close air support missions within a ground force AO (Area of Operations)?
• Which facilitate attacks and include CFLs, FSCLs, FFAs, and kill boxes?
• Operational Control (OPCON) is the authority over subordinate forces that permits which of the following?
• Operational Area stands for?
• Which term is listed as the final item in the material?
• Which term describes air power dedicated to destroying or degrading enemy air defenses to enable other operations?
• Which term is described as the line beyond which conventional surface fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ?
• What term refers to the overall integration framework that links command, acquisition, and delivery systems for fires?
• Which construct provides a protective airspace area established to protect friendly aircraft from friendly surface fires?
• What is the FAIO's role in the JAGIC?
• Who handles the procedural control of aircraft in division-assigned airspace, accepts hand-offs, and maintains situational awareness on ASOC-controlled aircraft?
• Implementing JAGIC TTP enhances the division's airspace control by co-locating members of which group?
• Which concept provides the framework for ground force operations?
• Which AFATDS-generated geometry provides coordinates for missile trajectory from the firing unit to impact?
• In air support for land forces, Close Air Support is best described as air action that supports ground forces in close proximity to the front line.
• A major operation is best described as which of the following?
• What is the procedural method to separate fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft by altitude thresholds?
• What attachment is used in planning documents to describe the details of airspace control within an operation?
• Who is the senior fires staff officer at echelons above corps who advises the commander on the best use of available fire resources and provides input to necessary orders?
• Which doctrinal reference provides an example of an Airspace Appendix format?
• Which document provides details of approved airspace coordination measures such as ACMs, ADMs, and FSCMs?
• In USMTF 2004, the terms '8 Types' and '112 Usages' refer to what?
• Which term denotes the arrangement that allows forces to operate together in a Joint Force?
• ACAs are included in which category of measures?
• Is activity that neutralizes, destroys, or degrades surface-based enemy air defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means?
• What is the method of airspace control that relies on positive identification, tracking, and electronic communication with aircraft within an airspace?
• What term describes the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission?
• The Airspace Control Area (ACA) assigns a volume of airspace to which of the following?
• Which plan, alongside the JAOP, specifically addresses air defense for a CCDR's campaign?
• What is the basic format for plan, orders, and their attachments including the Airspace appendix?
• Who determines target attack methods within JAGIC?
• What term is the airspace within which the responsibility for engaging air threats rests with high-altitude surface-to-air missiles?
• Which message is used to warn flight operations and to gain airspace clearance and is generated when a guided munitions fire mission is processed?
• Which term refers to airspace created specifically for unmanned aircraft operations?
• The Air Operations Directive (AOD) contains which critical elements for air missions?
• Which term denotes aircraft used to provide close air support and air interdiction in support of counterland operations?
• Which terminal attack control type requires that the intended target or mark be tallied/CONTACT/CAPTURED by the aircrew?
• Which of the following describes a coordinated air and ground fires effort?
• What is the purpose of an Airspace Control System (ACS)?
• Airspace altitude is typically expressed relative to which reference?
• Which control method relies on electronic identification and tracking of aircraft within airspace without relying on real-time communication?
• Which of the following are the components of the Joint Fires Support System?
• Which term facilitates the expeditious engagement of targets of opportunity beyond the coordinating measure and applies to all fires?
• Which term is used to separate users by altitude as they transition between different airspace control elements?
• Which AIRSUPREQ type is described as being submitted after the ATO has been published and is supported with on-call air missions or by redirecting scheduled missions already on the ATO?
• The exercise of delegated authority over designated airspace and user through control procedures and coordination measures to maximize operational effectiveness is called?
• What term describes a reasonable certainty that the object of attack is a legitimate military target in accordance with ROE?
• Which four AFATDS geometries assist in planning for S2S fires?
• In relation to military plans and orders, what is a short sentence or paragraph that describes the organization's essential task(s), purpose, and action containing the elements of who, what, when, where, and why?
• Which term describes air operations to perform interdiction at such distances from friendly forces that detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of friendly forces is not required?
• Which AIRSUPREQ type is used for urgent requests, submitted after the ATO has been published and typically relies on on-call assets?
• Which term describes the area into which any weapon may fire without additional coordination with the establishing headquarters?
• Which term describes a temporary corridor established in the forward area to minimize risk to friendly aircraft from friendly air defenses or surface forces?
• Which geometry defines the missile's trajectory coordinates from the fire unit to the warhead event?
• Which Field Manual is associated with Airspace Control in this context?
• A Joint Operation Area (JOA) is the area defined by a combatant commander or subordinate unified commander in which a Joint Force Commander conducts military operations to accomplish a specific mission?
• Which option is NOT a domain in the five-domain construct?
• Which attack type uses coordinates to designate the attack point?
• A campaign is defined as what?
• Which essential capability directs forces and operations to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• The Joint Functions are: Command and control, information, intelligence, fires, movement and maneuver, protection, and sustainment. Which statement best describes them?
• What is the Army's approach to mission command?
• What does MFP stand for?
• Which term is associated with airspace designed for unmanned aircraft operations?
• Which paragraph or Annex expresses appropriate command relationships to help subordinate and supporting commanders understand their roles in the operation?
• In the AFATDS geometry set, which term completes the quartet PAA, PAH, and TAH?
• Through which system are preplanned AIRSUPREQs submitted for US Army operations?
• What does NFA stand for in airspace control terminology?
• Which capability safeguards forces and resources to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• Who is always the FSCOORD for the theater?
• Co-locating division airspace control working group members enhances capability for airspace control by allowing them to do what?
• Which term marks the outer limit of a deployment area for ground forces to coordinate fire and maneuver?
• The term Joint Force, used to describe a general organizational concept, is applied to which of the following?
• Used to provide JFACC guidance for the use of joint air capabilities for a specified period during planning and execution of the ATO.
• Which geometry message is automatically created by AFATDS for guided munitions and describes the aircraft danger area around the launcher selected to fire?
• What is the term for a clear and concise expression of the purpose, end state, and risk in military plans and orders?
• What best describes the Unit Airspace Plan?
• Which term corresponds to the function of providing joint fires tasks such as strategic attack, countering air and missile threats (including SEAD and offensive counterair), and interdiction?
• Which stage is the Master Air Attack Plan in the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• Which attack method is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) determines that the desired effects can be created against the target with ordnance on a specified set of coordinates?
• What airspace clearance TTP minimizes the amount of airspace consumed?
• Which concept focuses on ensuring that personnel, supplies, and equipment remain available to support operations?
• Which field manual provides airspace appendix examples and is a good starting point for identifying information in an airspace appendix?
• Which order provides the details of the approved requests for coordination measures such as ACMs, ADMs, and FSCMs?
• Who designates Unified CCMDs?
• What type of AIRSUPREQ is submitted in time to be included in planning stages, normally 72 hours prior to execution?
• What is the plan for a connected series of Joint Air Operations to achieve the joint force commander's objectives within a given time and joint operational area?
• Which arrangement by the ACA defines the components' and host-nation airspace control elements required to perform airspace control?
• Which Field Artillery weapon system are precision capable and organic to BCT and DIV commanders?
• Which construct includes Land, Maritime, Cyberspace, Space, and Air?
• National Strategic, Theater Strategic, Operational, and Tactical are the Levels of Warfare. Which term best describes this collection?
• In USMTF 2004, how many usages are defined?
• Which command consists of the Service component commander and all those Service forces under that command, including the support forces that have been assigned to a combatant command or further assigned to a subordinate unified command or joint task force?
• Who typically serves as the JAGIC chief in the Joint Air Ground Integration Center?
• Who acts as the primary operational liaison between the JAGIC and the JAOC?
• A temporary corridor of defined dimensions recommended for use by high-speed, fixed-wing aircraft that presents the minimum known hazards to low-flying aircraft transiting the combat zone is known as what?
• How does the US Army present forces to the Joint Force?
• Which Appendix and Annex are designated for Airspace in Operations?
• What term is defined as the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit effective employment of capabilities?
• Does the ACA have authority to approve, disapprove or deny combat operations?
• Which term refers to a route established below the coordination level to facilitate movement of Army aviation assets; normally located in the corps rear areas and does not require airspace control authority approval?
• Which element preserves and leverages information to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• The Division Airspace Element is subordinate to which organization?
• Which entity produces the ATO using the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• Which term is the Standard Use Army Aircraft Flight Route typically located in corps rear areas and does not require airspace control authority approval?
• The term for the organization and geographic concept where campaigns are planned within a defined operational space is what?
• Which term is a three dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint fires and airspace (not a mission)?
• The Joint Force Commander (JFC) is responsible for military-directed airspace control in which area?
• Which concept describes the purpose of reducing the likelihood of unintended engagements with civil and neutral aircraft while achieving mission objectives?
• SUA/SSMS are organic to which units and are characterized as what type of weapons?
• In the Joint Fires Support System, which element is primarily responsible for locating targets?
• Which term refers to the unit tasked with protecting high-value airborne assets through dedicated fighter escort?
• Airspace reserved for specific activities in which operations of one or more airspace users is restricted
• Which is one of the most important control measures a commander uses to identify the Supported commander?
• An Operational Area (OA) is best described as what?
• What term represents the Kill Box goals intended to reduce coordination requirements, maximize flexibility, and prevent friendly fire?
• Which plan is the integration of active air defense design, passive defense measures, and the C2 system to defend against threats, synchronized with air defense regions?
• Which measures are employed to facilitate the efficient use of airspace and provide safeguards for friendly forces?
• Which entity provides clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement during terminal attack control?
• The Airspace Control Subarea (ACSS) is defined as a subset of which larger area?
• Who serves as the net control for assigned frequencies and manages immediate air support requests, and is the primary recipient of immediate JTARs?
• What are the mission types closely associated with land operations?
• FLOT stands for what?
• Which capability is primarily responsible for directing forces and operations?
• Which document details how the joint air effort supports the JFC's operation or campaign plan?
• The level that links tactical actions to strategic objectives and coordinates efforts across the force is which?
• The commander who receives assistance from another commander's force or capabilities and is responsible for integrating maneuver and fires within their designated area of operation is the what?
• Which organization is responsible for all aspects of Army airspace control in support of division operations?
• What are the two types of Airspace Coordination Areas?
• Which plan is the integration of active air defense design, passive defense measures, and the C2 system to provide a comprehensive approach to defending against threats, synchronized with air defense regions?
• ACA Criteria for Delegating Army-Assigned Airspace states that the ACA will recognize it as an airspace control element of the ACS and assign it a volume of airspace within which area?
• Which terminal attack control type requires using other measures to mitigate risk when the target cannot be visually acquired?
• What term defines a line established between converging friendly forces that prohibits fires, or effects of fires, across the line without coordination with the affected force?
• Which term describes the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission?
• Which term describes air assets employed in a supporting role to operations, such as escort jamming for a strike package?
• What does BOC stand for in attack terminology?
• What term is the airspace within which engagement responsibility rests with low to medium altitude surface-to-air missiles?
• Which term describes a three-dimensional area used to coordinate joint fires and airspace?
• Which term describes the arrangement by the ACA of the components' and host-nation airspace control elements required to perform airspace control?
• Which doctrine is defined as an agreed upon fundamental principle that guides the employment of force of two or more nations in coordinated action toward a common objective?
• Which role is responsible for the ASOC airspace C2 function and coordinates ACMs and FSCMs to optimize aircraft fires and airspace integration?
• Which stage immediately follows Master Air Attack Plan in the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• What does BOT stand for in attack terminology?
• Which command is described as a command with broad continuing missions under a single commander, composed of significant assigned components of two or more MILDEPs, established and designated by the President through SecDef and with the advice and assistance of the CJCS?
• Which kill box is an area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited?
• The normal suspense for submitting AIRSUPREQs for air missions is prior to Stage 3 (weaponeering and allocation) of the joint air tasking cycle. Which stage is this?
• The JAGIC's targeting officer normally supports which element and performs what action?
• Which document is a supporting plan produced alongside the JAOP to address airspace control and air defense planning?
• Who oversees fire mission execution and establishes or modifies FSCMs in JAGIC?
• Which term corresponds to a specific designated area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing headquarters?
• Which term designates a kill box in which fires or their effects are prohibited within the zone?
• Who is the normally weapons release authority for air interdiction missions?
• Which capability ensures logistical and operational support enables the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• Which term refers to two types of Airspace Coordination Areas used to facilitate efficient airspace use?
• Which area is defined as the kill box variant that prohibits fires or their effects within its boundaries?
• Who is responsible for developing the Joint Air Operations Plan (JAOP)?
• Which process is used by an air component commander for planning operations?
• Which document clearly articulates the ARFOR commander's requests for air operations support to complement the JFC's end state?
• Which term designates an airspace control subarea or sector?
• Tactical Actions are defined as what?
• What is the method of airspace control that relies on pre-established orders and uses airspace coordination areas and restricted operating zones to manage airspace without real-time communication?
• Which term provides a picture of movement and maneuver of forces?
• Which term describes the type of Fire Support Coordination Measures used to integrate fires with airspace control and prevent fratricide?
• How many terminal attack control types are used in this doctrine?
• Which kill box facilitates the attack of surface targets with subsurface-to-surface, surface-to-surface, and air-to-surface munitions?
• Which level of warfare is primarily concerned with the execution of campaigns and major operations within a theater?
• What is the standard designation for use with fixed-wing and rotary-wing aircraft in close air support?
• Which level focuses on broad strategic aims at the national level?
• Which capability positions forces effectively to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• The Joint Task Force is constituted and designated to accomplish a specific mission by whom?
• Which element involves applying force to achieve objectives?
• Who is responsible for receiving and analyzing the air tasking order (ATO) to identify and track air missions tasked to support ground forces?
• Which term is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas?
• Which doctrine outlines Service capabilities, guides the application of Service forces and presents the Service's view of the best way to organize and employ Service forces to accomplish joint force commander objectives?
• What is the primary purpose of the Tactical Level of Warfare?